Peter and mulveling, you bring up some very good points, about amount of fines and punishing differently in that respect, which are worth thinking about. This is a useful discussion to have.
Yet in terms of jail time and loss of license vs. monetary fine, the problem is that I don't trust the system with doing time either. The super-rich often get off free, because the system is rigged, they can afford the best (whatever that term may entail) lawyers etc.
Now that is not an argument, in my view. If someone didn't hurt anybody, that is simply luck for everyone involved, or in this case, not involved. Merely driving in a (here, measurable) state of mind that has the severe potential to have lethal consequences is the same moral, and should be the same legal, offense if it does have lethal consequences or not. Or perhaps you can convince me otherwise.
I know that not everyone has the same susceptibility to impairment by alcohol (I'll freely admit my personal threshold is low, I won't play the childish pretend "manly man" card here), but I think a supposedly higher subjective threshold is a weak argument to make as defense. I do think, however, that a level of 0.08 is no the same as one that is guaranteed full impairment/intoxication. The latter, upon the subject driving, must be punished to the fullest extent possible.
Yet in terms of jail time and loss of license vs. monetary fine, the problem is that I don't trust the system with doing time either. The super-rich often get off free, because the system is rigged, they can afford the best (whatever that term may entail) lawyers etc.
She was driving drunk, no accident, no one hurt, but she got caught and given a drunk driving fine...
Man, some of this thinking is nuts. It's one thing if she actually hurts someone.
Now that is not an argument, in my view. If someone didn't hurt anybody, that is simply luck for everyone involved, or in this case, not involved. Merely driving in a (here, measurable) state of mind that has the severe potential to have lethal consequences is the same moral, and should be the same legal, offense if it does have lethal consequences or not. Or perhaps you can convince me otherwise.
I know that not everyone has the same susceptibility to impairment by alcohol (I'll freely admit my personal threshold is low, I won't play the childish pretend "manly man" card here), but I think a supposedly higher subjective threshold is a weak argument to make as defense. I do think, however, that a level of 0.08 is no the same as one that is guaranteed full impairment/intoxication. The latter, upon the subject driving, must be punished to the fullest extent possible.
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