I find a refusal to at least nominally agree on an audible range makes for an even more difficult situation in which to carry on discussion.
In the most recent example it wasn't the 50 khz phase shift that was directly audible as Don Hills said. It was the phase changes it also caused in the range below 20 khz. Saying a 50 khz filter alters below 20 khz sound isn't controversial, odd, or difficult to understand. Saying results at 50 khz change the sound is more opaque, and likely to lead to miscommunication.
The old guideline of getting response that was -3db down out to 200 khz recognizes you need that for flat response without phase issues to 20 khz. Paired with knowledge that some collections of high frequency sounds get timed together like lower frequency tones makes it all seem reasonably explained and understandable. Nothing mysterious about it really.
The essence of the discussion (debate) is, "What is the audible range and how is it defined?" Therefore using the term in these discussions potentially involves a circular argument, or amounts to a debating tactic to trick one's opponents into agreeing to one's view of the issue at the start of the discussion. If any knowledge is to be exchanged or mutually gained, it's best to remove this noise from the discussion.
In the specific example, it could be that phase response below 20 kHz was the cause. However, it is possible to imagine experiments where high frequencies were filtered out above 20 kHz with a linear phase filter and then this argument would not apply. (I am not sure exactly which filters were used in published experiments that showed audibility of filters operating above 20 kHz, but I suspect that some of them involved linear phase filters. Indeed, I believe some have shown spectrum plots showing deep nulls below 20 kHz between original and filtered, implying linear phase.)